Veterinary Drug terms — page 7 | HESTIA Glossary

Browse all 1,061 veterinary drug terms HESTIA uses to describe agricultural data — with definitions and synonyms. Free and open.

Clinafloxacin 7-(3-Amino-1-pyrrolindinyl-8-chloro-1-cyclopropyl-6-fluoro-1,4-dihydro-4-oxo-3-quinolinecarboxylic acid; Clinafloxacin; Clinafloxacin
Clindamycin (2S-trans)-Methyl-7-chloro-6,7,8-trideoxy-6-[[(methyl-4-propyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)carbonyl]amino]-1-thio-L-threo-alpha-D-galacto-octopyranoside; Clindamycin; U-21,251
Clindamycin phosphate Methyl 7-chloro-6,7,8-trideoxy-6-[[[(2S,4R)-1-methyl-4-propyl-2-pyrrolidinyl]carbonyl]amino]-1-thio-L-threo-alpha-D-galacto-octopyranoside 2-(dihydrogen phosphate); Clindamycin phosphate [USAN:USP:JAN]; U 28508
Clioquinol 5-Chloro-7-iodo-8-quinolinol; clioquinol; 130-26-7; 5-Chloro-7-iodoquinolin-8-ol; Iodochlorhydroxyquin; Chinoform; Chloroiodoquin; Chloroiodoquine; 5-Chloro-8-hydroxy-7-iodoquinoline; Iodochloroxyquinoline; Cliquinol; Vioform; Iodochlorohydroxyquinoline; Chlorojodochin; Enteroquinol; Iodochloroquine; Iodochloroxine; Iodoenterol; 7-Iodo-5-chloroxine; 5-Chloro-7-iodo-8-quinolinol; Entero-Vioform; Iodochlorhydroxyquinoline; Iodoxyquinoline; Alchloquin; Barquinol; Budoform; Cifoform; Dermaform; Dioquinol; Domeform; Eczecidin; Enteroseptol; Enterozol; Enterseptol; Entrokin; Iodenterol; Lekosept; Mycoquin; Quinambicide; Quinoform; Rheaform; Amebil; Amoenol; Bactol; Emaform; Nioform; Rometin; 5-Chloro-7-iodo-8-hydroxyquinoline; Entero-Bioform; Iodochlorohydroxyquin; Hi-Enterol; Iodochlorhydroxyquinol; Hydriodide-enterol; Quin-O-Creme; Chinoformum; Cliochinolum; Entero-Septol; Enterum locorten; 5-Chloro-7-iodo-quinolin-8-ol; Domeform-HC; 8-Quinolinol, 5-chloro-7-iodo-; 7-Iodo-5-chloro-8-hydroxyquinoline; Clioquinolum; Enterovalodon; Alioform; Chloro-8-hydroxyiodoquinoline; Enteritan; Jodchloroxychinolinum; Corque; Cortin; Oralcer; Iodo; Iodochloroxychinolinum; Cremo-quin; Entero-bio form; Entero-Vioformio; Ala-Quin; Quinoform (antiseptic); UAD Lotion; Vioform n.n.r.; Cliochinolo [DCIT]; Caswell No. 193; Formtone-HC; Quinoform (VAN); Clioquinolum [INN-Latin]; Quinoline, chloro-8-hydroxyiodo-; 5-Chlor-7-jod-8-hydroxy-chinolin; C9H5ClINO; Rheaform boluses; Iodochlorhydroxyquin Cream; Vioform-Hydrocortisone Mild; UNII-7BHQ856EJ5; Rheaform Boluses (Veterinary); CCRIS 6050; HSDB 6843; 5-Chlor-7-jod-8-hydroxy-chinolin [German]; NSC 3531; EINECS 204-984-4; EPA Pesticide Chemical Code 024001; BRN 0153637; AI3-16451; 7BHQ856EJ5; CHEBI:74460; QCDFBFJGMNKBDO-UHFFFAOYSA-N; NSC-3531; MFCD00006787; NCGC00016391-05; Cliochinolo; CAS-130-26-7; TG2-36-2; DSSTox_CID_2837; DSSTox_RID_76751; PBT-1; DSSTox_GSID_22837; loquinol; Vioformio; Hi-eneterol; 22112-03-4; SMR000058282; NSC-74938; Clioquinol [INN:BAN]; SR-01000002987; Linolasept; Clioqinol; Clioquinol [USP:INN:BAN]; Cloquinol; Kliokinol; Clioquinol (CQ); component of Hyquin; Vioform N.N.R; NSC 74938; Nystaform (Salt/Mix); PubChem16777; Clioquinol (USP/INN); component of Formtone-HC; component of Heb-Cort V; Prestwick0_000886; Prestwick1_000886; Prestwick2_000886; Prestwick3_000886; Formtone-HC (Salt/Mix); ACMC-1CD8U; CHEMBL497; EC 204-984-4; cid_2788; SCHEMBL3967; NCIOpen2_009062; Oprea1_438281; BSPBio_000672; BSPBio_002466; 5-21-03-00294 (Beilstein Handbook Reference); ksc-8-192; MLS000069389; MLS002454410; SPECTRUM1505114; SPBio_002891; BPBio1_000740; component of Hyquin (Salt/Mix); DTXSID7022837; 8-Quinolinol,5-chloro-7-iodo-; BDBM32188; CTK4B6611; NSC3531; WLN: T66 BNJ GG II JQ; HMS1570B14; HMS1648J07; HMS2093I12; HMS2097B14; HMS2230I20; HMS3372J20; HMS3714B14; KUC105859N; Pharmakon1600-01505114; ALBB-031653; component of Cort-Quin (Salt/Mix); ZINC6409735; Tox21_110416; Tox21_200291; ANW-19167; LS-725; NSC759822; s4601; SBB032280; STK399761; 5-chloro-8-hydroxy-7-iodo-quinoline; component of Heb-Cort V (Salt/Mix); AKOS000120779; Tox21_110416_1; AC-6792; CCG-213339; DB04815; MCULE-5389218452; NSC-759822; RTR-035598; TRA0054336; SMP1_000073; NCGC00016391-01; NCGC00016391-02; NCGC00016391-03; NCGC00016391-04; NCGC00016391-06; NCGC00016391-07; NCGC00016391-08; NCGC00016391-09; NCGC00016391-10; NCGC00016391-13; NCGC00021665-03; NCGC00021665-04; NCGC00021665-05; NCGC00257845-01; S4601 5-Chloro-8-hydroxy-7-iodoquin; AK-57345; AS-14597; HY-14603; L813; SBI-0206782.P001; DB-041956; TR-035598; AB00384254; FT-0603209; ST24032993; ST50585810; V2416; A16461; Clioquinol, VETRANAL(TM), analytical standard; component of Vioform-Hydrocortisone (Salt/Mix); D03538; AB00384254_17; 5-Chloro-7-iodo-8-quinolinol, >=95.0% (HPLC); CU-01000000767-2; Q-200875; Q5134338; SR-01000002987-2; SR-01000002987-3; SR-01000002987-4; BRD-K09255212-001-04-2; Z2768770393; Clioquinol, British Pharmacopoeia (BP) Reference Standard; Clioquinol, European Pharmacopoeia (EP) Reference Standard; Clindamycin phosphate, Antibiotic for Culture Media Use Only; Clioquinol, United States Pharmacopeia (USP) Reference Standard; InChI=1/C9H5ClINO/c10-6-4-7(11)9(13)8-5(6)2-1-3-12-8/h1-4,13; CQL; Clioquinol; 5-21-03-00294 (Beilstein Handbook Reference)
Clofibrate 2-(4-Chlorophenoxy)-2-methylpropanoic acid, Ethyl ester; Clofibrate; 4-06-00-00851 (Beilstein Handbook Reference)
Clomipramine 3-Chloro-10,11-dihydro-N,N-dimethyl-5H-dibenz[b,f]azepine-5-propanamine; Clomipramine; 5-20-08-00103 (Beilstein Handbook Reference); Clomipramine hydrochloride [USAN:USP:JAN]; Anafranil; 17321-77-6
Cloxacillin (2S,5R,6R)-6-[[[3-(2-Chlorophenyl)-5-methyl-4-isoxazolyl]carbonyl]amino]-3,3-dimethyl-7-oxo-4-thia-1-azabicyclo[3.2.0]heptane-2-carboxylic acid; Cloxacillin; BRL 1621
Cocaine (1R,2R,3S,5S)-3-(Benzoyloxy)-8-methyl-8-azabicyclo[3.2.1]octane-2-carboxylic acid methyl ester; Cocaine; C Carrie
Coenzyme Q10 2-[(2E,6E,10E,14E,18E,22E,26E,30E,34E)-3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-Decamethyl-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-tetracontadecaen-1-yl]-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methyl-2,5-cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione; Coenzyme Q10; ubidecarenone; 303-98-0; ubiquinone-10; CoQ10; Ubiquinone; Ubiquinone 50; Neuquinon; Justquinon; Emitolon; Heartcin; Inokiten; Terekol; Udekinon; Neuquinone; Ubiquinone 10; Coenzyme Q; Ubiquinone Q10; Luvacor; Vitamin Q; Coenzyme Q 10; Coenzyme Q-10; CoQ 10; Ubidecarenonum [Latin]; Coenzyme Q(sub 10); Ubidecarenona [Spanish]; NSC 140865; CoQ(sub 10); Ubiquinone Q(sub 10); Q 199; Ube-Q; UNII-EJ27X76M46; CCRIS 9016; C59H90O4; EINECS 206-147-9; API-31510; NSC 140665; CHEBI:46245; ACTIUHUUMQJHFO-UPTCCGCDSA-N; EJ27X76M46; NSC-140865; NCGC00159429-02; Coenzyme Q10, 98%; DSSTox_CID_26054; DSSTox_RID_81308; DSSTox_GSID_46054; p-Benzoquinone, 2-(3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-decamethyl-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-tetracontadecaenyl)-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methyl-; Ubidecarenona; Ubidecarenonum; coenzyme-Q10; 2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione, 2-((2E,6E,10E,14E,18E,22E,26E,30E,34E)-3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-decamethyl-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-tetracontadecaenyl)-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methyl; 2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione, 2-((2E,6E,10E,14E,18E,22E,26E,30E,34E)-3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-decamethyl-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-tetracontadecaenyl)-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methyl-; 2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione, 2-(3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-decamethyl-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-tetracontadecaenyl)-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methyl-, (all-E)-; 2-((2E,6E,10E,14E,18E,22E,26E,30E,34E)-3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-decamethyltetraconta-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-decaen-1-yl)-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methylcyclohexa-2,5-diene-1,4-dione; 2-((all-E)-3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-decamethyl-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-tetracontadecaenyl)-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methyl-p-benzoquinone; 2-(3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-Decamethyl-tetraconta-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-decaenyl)-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methyl-[1,4]benzoquinone; 2-[(2E,6E,10E,14E,18E,22E,26E,30E,34E)-3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-decamethyltetraconta-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-decaenyl]-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methylcyclohexa-2,5-diene-1,4-dione; CAS-303-98-0; Co-enzyme Q-10; ubisemiquinone radical; Q 10AA; Ubidecarenone [INN:JAN]; Ubiquinone 10 (Coenzyme Q10); Co Q10; Armolipid; Mitocor; Akvion; NSC140865; Ubiquinone-Q10; Ubidecarenone [INN:BAN:JAN:NF]; ubiquinone(10); NCGC00095322-03; KanekaQ10; 2-((2E,6E,10E,14E,18E,22E,26E,30E,34E)-3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-decamethyltetraconta-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-decaenyl)-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methylcyclohexa-2,5-diene-1,4-dione; 2-(3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-Decamethyl-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-tetracontadecaenyl)-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methyl-p-benzoquinone; 2-[(2E,6E,10E,14E,18E,22E,26E,30E,34E)-3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-decamethyltetraconta-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-decaen-1-yl]-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methylcyclohexa-2,5-diene-1,4-dione; 5-((2E,6E,10E,14E,18E,22E,26E,30E,34E)-3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-decamethylt etraconta-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-decaenyl)-2,3-dimethoxy-6-methylcyclohex a-2,5-diene-1,4-dione; Q-10; all-trans-ubiquinone; Adelir (TN); Coenzymeq10,(S); BP31510; Co Enzyme Q-10; PubChem13766; PubChem17408; Coenzyme Q10(CoQ10); Ubidecarenone (JP17/INN); SCHEMBL19858; MLS000028745; CHEMBL454801; (non-labelled)Coenzyme Q10-d5; DTXSID6046054; SCHEMBL11901691; EX-A973; Coenzyme Q10, analytical standard; (all-E)-2-(3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-decamethyl-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-tetracontadecaenyl)-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methyl-2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione; HY-N0111; Ubidecarenone for system suitability; Tox21_111660; Tox21_113394; API 31510; BPM-31510; LMPR02010001; s2398; SBB057402; ZINC85427689; Coenzyme Q10, >=98% (HPLC); AKOS015897104; AKOS015951232; AC-4352; DB09270; Q-10; Ubiquinone 50; Ubiquinone-10; 2-[(2E,6E,10E,14E,18E,22E,26E,30E,34E)-3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-DECAMETHYL-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-TETRACONTADECAEN-1-YL]-5,6-DIMETHOXY-3-METHYL-2,5-CYCLOHEXADIENE-1,4-DIONE; AS-13341; AT-16447; CPD000058651; H938; LS-40331; Q 10; SAM001246918; SMR000058651; AB1009286; C1971; CS-0007796; N1796; ST50999657; A-2586; C-7060; C11378; D01065; J10064; 303C980; Q321285; Ubidecarenone, European Pharmacopoeia (EP) Reference Standard; Ubidecarenone, United States Pharmacopeia (USP) Reference Standard; Coenzyme Q10 solution, 1 mg/mL in ethanol, certified reference material, ampule of 1 mL; Ubidecarenone for system suitability, European Pharmacopoeia (EP) Reference Standard; Ubidecarenone for System Suitability, United States Pharmacopeia (USP) Reference Standard; 2,4-dione, 2-(3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-decamethyl-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-tetracontadecaenyl)-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methyl-; 2,4-dione, 2-(3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-decamethyl-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-tetracontadecaenyl)-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methyl-, (all-E)-; 2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione, 2-(3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-decamethyl-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-tetracontadecaenyl)-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methyl-, (all trans)-; 2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione, 2-(3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-decamethyl-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-tetracontadecaenyl)-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methyl-, (all-E)- (9CI); 2-((all-E)-3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-Decamethyl-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-tetracontadecaenyl)-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methyl-2,5-cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione; 2-(3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-Decamethyl-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-tetracontadecaenyl)-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methyl-p-benzoquinone, (all trans)-; 2-(3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-Decamethyl-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-tetracontadecenyl)-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methyl-1,4-benzoquinone; 2-[(2E,6E,10E,14E,18E,22E,26E,30E,34E)-3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-Decamethyl-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-tetracontadecaenyl]-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methylbenzo-1,4-quinone #; p-Benzoquinone,7,11,15,19,23,27,31,35,39-decamethyl-2,6,10,14,18,22,26,30,34,38-tetracontadecaenyl)-5,6-dimethoxy-3-methyl-; Coenzyme Q10; Coenzyme Q
Colistimethate sodium Colistimethate sodium [USAN:USP:INN:BAN]; W 1929
Cordycepin Cordycepin 3'-deoxyadenosine; Cordycepin; 4-26-00-03594 (Beilstein Handbook Reference)
Corticosterone (11 beta)-11,21-Dihydroxypregn-4-ene-3,20-dione; Corticosterone; 4-08-00-02907 (Beilstein Handbook Reference)
Cortisone acetate 21-(Acetyloxy)-17-hydroxypregn-4-ene-3,11,20-trione; Cortisone Acetate; Cortisone 21-acetate; 50-04-4; Cortone acetate; Incortin; Biocort acetate; Artriona; Cortadren; Scheroson; Cortisyl; Adreson; Irisone acetate; Cortelan; Cortistab; Ricortex; Corlin; Cortogen acetate; Compound E acetate; Cortisone (acetate); Cortisone monoacetate; NSC 49420; Cortisone, 21-acetate; Pregn-4-ene-3,11,20-trione, 21-(acetyloxy)-17-hydroxy-; Cortilen; UNII-883WKN7W8X; 11-Dehydro-17-hydroxycorticosterone-21-acetate; CCRIS 3661; 11-Dehydro-17-hydroxycorticosterone acetate; EINECS 200-006-5; 17-Hydroxy-3,11,20-trioxopregn-4-en-21-yl acetate; 17,21-Dihydroxypregn-4-ene-3,11,20-trione 21-acetate; 883WKN7W8X; CHEBI:3897; Pregn-4-ene-3,11,20-trione, 17,21-dihydroxy-, 21-acetate; ITRJWOMZKQRYTA-RFZYENFJSA-N; NSC-49420; 21-(Acetyloxy)-17-hydroxypregn-4-ene-3,11,20-trione; 21-Acetoxy-17,alpha-hydroxy-3,11,20-triketopregnene-4; 21-Acetoxy-17,alpha-hydroxypregn-4-ene-3,11,20-trione; NCGC00021191-07; 4-Pregnene-17,alpha,21-diol-3,11,20-trione 21-acetate; DSSTox_CID_2858; DSSTox_RID_76761; DSSTox_GSID_22858; 21-Acetoxy-4-pregnen-17alpha-ol-3,11,20-trione; Cortisone 21-acetate, 98+%; 17,21-Dihydroxypregn-4-ene-3,11,20-trione-21-acetate; 17alpha,21-dihydroxypregn-4-ene-3,11,20-trione acetate; CAS-50-04-4; [2-[(8S,9S,10R,13S,14S,17R)-17-hydroxy-10,13-dimethyl-3,11-dioxo-1,2,6,7,8,9,12,14,15,16-decahydrocyclopenta[a]phenanthren-17-yl]-2-oxoethyl] acetate; 2-((1S,10S,11S,15S,2R,14R)-14-hydroxy-2,15-dimethyl-5,17-dioxotetracyclo[8.7.0 .0<2,7>.0<11,15>]heptadec-6-en-14-yl)-2-oxoethyl acetate; 2-((8S,9S,10R,13S,14S,17R)-17-hydroxy-10,13-dimethyl-3,11-dioxo-2,3,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15,16,17-tetradecahydro-1H-cyclopenta[a]phenanthren-17-yl)-2-oxoethyl acetate; SMR000059124; Cortisone acetate (Cortone); Cortisone acetate [USP:JAN]; Cortisone acetate [USAN:JAN]; Acetate cortisone; Cortisyl artriona; component of Neosone; Neosone (Salt/Mix); Cortisone-21-acetate; Cortone acetate (TN); SCHEMBL4501; CHEMBL1650; Lopac0_000271; MLS000069478; MLS002207136; MLS002548859; ARONIS24358; Cortisone acetate (JP17/USP); DTXSID0022858; CTK8D6790; Cortisone 21-acetate, >=99%; HMS2235D24; HMS3259N19; HMS3260H04; BCP08487; NSC49420; ZINC3875334; Tox21_113482; Tox21_500271; BDBM50455157; HY-17461A; LMST02030120; MFCD00003609; SBB080776; AKOS005267225; Tox21_113482_1; AC-6827; CCG-204366; CS-1742; DB01380; LP00271; MCULE-8390750975; NC00677; SDCCGSBI-0050259.P002; NCGC00021191-03; NCGC00021191-06; NCGC00021191-08; NCGC00021191-09; NCGC00260956-01; [2-[(8S,9S,10R,13S,14S,17R)-17-hydroxy-10,13-dimethyl-3,11-dioxo-1,2,6,7,8,9,12,14,15,16-decahydrocyclopenta[a]phenanthren-17-yl]-2-oxo-ethyl] acetate; AK163492; AS-13692; CC-25981; LS-55003; ST075179; AB2000655; EU-0100271; FT-0665176; S2559; ST24046370; C08173; D00973; J10115; AB00384283-08; AB00384283_09; 003C609; C-21758; W-105993; BRD-K86161929-001-13-3; Pregn-4-ene-3,20-trione, 21-(acetyloxy)-17-hydroxy-; 17-Hydroxy-3,11,20-trioxopregn-4-en-21-yl acetate #; 21-Acetoxy-17.alpha.-hydroxy-3,11,20-triketopregnene-4; 21-Acetoxy-17.alpha.-hydroxypregn-4-ene-3,11,20-trione; 4-Pregnen-17.alpha.,21-diol-3,11,20-trione 21-acetate; 4-Pregnene-17alpha,21-diol-3,11,20-trione 21-acetate; Pregn-4-ene-3,20-trione, 17,21-dihydroxy-, 21-acetate; 17alpha,21-Dihydroxy-4-pregnene-3,11,20-trione 21-acetate; 4-Pregnene-17.alpha.,21-diol-3,11,20-trione 21-acetate; Cortisone acetate, European Pharmacopoeia (EP) Reference Standard; Cortisone acetate, United States Pharmacopeia (USP) Reference Standard; Cortisone Acetate, Pharmaceutical Secondary Standard; Certified Reference Material; Cortisone acetate; 21-Acetoxy-17,alpha-hydroxypregn-4-ene-3,11,20-trione
Cotrimoxazole Abactrim; Bactifor; Bactrim; Biseptol; Biseptol 480; Biseptol-480; Biseptol480; Centran; Centrin; Co Trimoxazole; Co-Trimoxazole; Cotrimoxazole; Drylin; Eslectin; Eusaprim; Insozalin; Kepinol; Kepinol Forte; Lescot; Metomide; Oriprim; Septra; Septrin; Sulfamethoxazole Trimethoprim Combination; Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim Combination; Sulprim; Sumetrolim; TMP SMX; TMP-SMX; Trimedin; Trimethoprim; Sulfamethoxazole; Trimethoprim Sulfamethoxazole Combination; Trimethoprim, Sulfamethoxazole Drug Combination; Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole; Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole Combination; Trimethoprimsulfa; Trimezole; Trimosulfa
Creatine N-Aminoimino methyl)N-methylglycine; Creatine; AI3-15320
Creosol 2-Methoxy-4-methylphenol; 2-METHOXY-4-METHYLPHENOL; 93-51-6; Creosol; 4-Methylguaiacol; 2-Methoxy-p-cresol; Phenol, 2-methoxy-4-methyl-; 4-Methyl guaiacol; Homoguaiacol; p-Methylguaiacol; p-Creosol; 2-Methoxy-4-cresol; 4-Hydroxy-3-methoxytoluene; p-Cresol, 2-methoxy-; Rohkcrsol; Kreosol; Cresolum drudum; 4-Methyl-2-methoxyphenol; 2-methoxy-4-methyl-phenol; 3-Methoxy-4-hydroxytoluene; Valspice; Homocatechol monomethyl ether; 4-Hydroxy-3-methoxy-1-methylbenzene; Kreosol [German]; UNII-W9GW1KZG6N; 2-Hydroxy-5-methylanisole; NSC 4969; 1-Hydroxy-2-methoxy-4-methylbenzene; FEMA No. 2671; EINECS 202-252-9; MFCD00002378; W9GW1KZG6N; 2-methoxy-4-methyl phenol; BRN 1862340; 2-2-Methoxy-4-methylphenol; Phenol, 4-methyl-2-methoxy; AI3-15891; CHEBI:89886; PETRWTHZSKVLRE-UHFFFAOYSA-N; 2-Methoxy-4-methylphenol (Methyl guaiacol); P-Methylguaicol; 2-Methoxy-p-cresol.; Homocatechol methyl ester; Nature 4-Methyl guaiacol; ACMC-209rm9; 3-Methoxy-4-methyl-Phenol; DSSTox_CID_27105; DSSTox_RID_82115; DSSTox_GSID_47105; SCHEMBL92236; KSC495C3R; CHEMBL3182715; DTXSID6047105; 2-Methoxy-4-methylphenol, 9CI; CTK3J5138; FEMA 2671; NSC4969; BCP19090; NSC-4969; ZINC3875629; 2-Methoxy-4-methylphenol (creosol); Tox21_302681; 2-Methoxy-4-methylphenol, >=98%; ANW-40063; SBB008258; AKOS000120520; CS-W021711; MCULE-1126785638; RTR-029283; CAS-93-51-6; NCGC00256731-01; 2-Methoxy-4-methylphenol, >=98%, FG; AK-75601; AS-15967; LS-55413; R585; SC-15288; SY036778; ST2410076; TR-029283; 2-Methoxy-4-methylphenol (4-methylguaiacol); 4-Methyl-2-methoxyphenol (4-methylguaiacol); FT-0612795; M0114; ST50828305; 2-Methoxy-4-methylphenol, analytical standard; AZ0001-0503; 2-Methoxy-4-methylphenol, natural, 97%, FG; M-5048; Q403037; Q-100894; F0001-2237; InChI=1/C8H10O2/c1-6-3-4-7(9)8(5-6)10-2/h3-5,9H,1-2H; Creosol; 4-06-00-05878 (Beilstein Handbook Reference)
Cupric chloride anhydrous Copper chloride (CuCl2); Copper(II) chloride; AI3-01658
Cyanocobalamin Vitamin B12; Cyanocobalamin; B-12
Cyclic AMP Cyclic 3',5'-(hydrogen phosphate)adenosine; Cyclic AMP; 4-26-00-03618 (Beilstein Handbook Reference)
Cycloheximide 4-[(2R)-2-[(1S,3S,5S)-3,5-Dimethyl-2-oxocyclohexyl]-2-hydroxyethyl]-2,6-piperidinedione; Cycloheximide; U-4527
Cyproheptadine 4-(5H-Dibenzo[a,d]cyclohepten-5-ylidene)-1-methylpiperidine; CYPROHEPTADINE; Periactin; 129-03-3; Eiproheptadine; Dronactin; Periactinol; Ciproheptadina; Cyproheptadinum; 4-(5H-dibenzo[a,d][7]annulen-5-ylidene)-1-methylpiperidine; Peritol; MK 141; Cyproheptadine [INN:BAN]; Cyproheptadinum [INN-Latin]; Ciproheptadina [INN-Spanish]; 4-(5H-Dibenzo(a,d)cyclohepten-5-ylidene)-1-methylpiperidine; 1-Methyl-4-(5H-dibenzo(a,d)cycloheptenylidene)piperidine; 5-(1-Methylpiperidylidene-4)-5H-dibenzo(a,d)cyclopheptene; 1-Methyl-4-(5-dibenzo(a,e)cycloheptatrienylidene)piperidine; 4-(5-Dibenzo(a,d)cyclohepten-5-ylidine)-1-methylpiperidine; UNII-2YHB6175DO; CCRIS 5232; HSDB 3048; EINECS 204-928-9; CHEMBL516; Piperidine, 4-(5H-dibenzo[a,d]cyclohepten-5-ylidene)-1-methyl-; BRN 1685976; 2YHB6175DO; CHEBI:4046; Cypoheptadine; Cyproheptadiene; Periactine; 4-(5H-Dibenzo(a,d)cyclohepten-5-ylidene)-1-methylpiperidene; 4-(5H-Dibenzo[a,d]cyclohepten-5-ylidene)-1-methylpiperidine; Piperidine, 4-(5H-dibenzo(a,d)cyclohepten-5-ylidene)-1-methyl-; JJCFRYNCJDLXIK-UHFFFAOYSA-N; 1-Methyl-4-(5H-dibenzo[a,d]cycloheptenylidene)piperidine; NCGC00015252-08; Dihexazin; Viternum; DSSTox_CID_2872; 41354-29-4; DSSTox_RID_76768; DSSTox_GSID_22872; 4-Dibenzo[a,d]cyclohepten-5-ylidene-1-methyl-piperidine; Ciprovit (TN); CAS-129-03-3; Cyproheptadine (INN); cyproheptidine; Reactin; Peritol (Salt/Mix); Tocris-0996; 6032-06-0; Prestwick0_000103; Prestwick1_000103; Prestwick2_000103; Prestwick3_000103; Lopac-C-6022; Biomol-NT_000131; SCHEMBL4021; Lopac0_000246; Oprea1_498140; BSPBio_000086; GTPL277; 5-20-08-00500 (Beilstein Handbook Reference); BIDD:GT0324; SPBio_002025; BPBio1_000096; BPBio1_000155; DTXSID8022872; HMS2090P20; ZINC968264; Tox21_110112; BBL010977; BDBM50017721; DL-136; PDSP1_001229; PDSP2_001213; STK802098; AKOS004119847; Tox21_110112_1; CCG-204341; DB00434; MCULE-3352282545; SDCCGSBI-0050234.P003; NCGC00015252-01; NCGC00015252-02; NCGC00015252-03; NCGC00015252-04; NCGC00015252-05; NCGC00015252-06; NCGC00015252-07; NCGC00015252-09; NCGC00015252-10; NCGC00015252-12; NCGC00015252-13; NCGC00024293-02; NCGC00024293-04; NCGC00024293-05; CAS-969-33-5; VS-02784; SBI-0050234.P002; DB-041917; LS-114933; FT-0631755; H2428; C06935; D07765; 16621-EP2281563A1; 16621-EP2295409A1; 16621-EP2314590A1; 16621-EP2316459A1; 129C033; C-36401; L001016; Q417884; BRD-K28143534-001-01-4; BRD-K28143534-001-03-0; BRD-K28143534-003-03-6; BRD-K28143534-003-14-3; 4-(dibenzo[[?],[?]][7]annulen-11-ylidene)-1-methyl-piperidine; 4-(Dibenzo[1,2-A:2',1'-D][7]annulen-11-Ylidene)-1-Methyl-Piperidine; 1-methyl-4-(2-tricyclo[9.4.0.0^{3,8]pentadeca-1(15),3,5,7,9,11,13-heptaenylidene)piperidine; 1-methyl-4-{tricyclo[9.4.0.0(3),?]pentadeca-1(11),3,5,7,9,12,14-heptaen-2-ylidene}piperidine; 1-methyl-4-{tricyclo[9.4.0.0^{3,8}]pentadeca-1(11),3(8),4,6,9,12,14-heptaen-2-ylidene}piperidine; 1-methyl-4-{tricyclo[9.4.0.0^{3,8}]pentadeca-1(15),3,5,7,9,11,13-heptaen-2-ylidene}piperidine; 4-(5H-dibenzo[a,d][7]annulen-5-ylidene)-1-methylpiperidine4-(5H-dibenzo[a,d]cyclohepten-5-ylidene)-1-methylpiperidine; Cyproheptadine; 5-20-08-00500 (Beilstein Handbook Reference)
Cyproterone acetate (1 beta, 2 beta)-17-(Acetyloxy)-6-chloro-1,2-dihydro-3H-cyclopropa[1,2]pregna-1,4,6-triene-3,20-dione; Cyproterone acetate; 17-alpha-Acetoxy-6-chloro-1-alpha,2-alpha-methylenepregna-4,6-diene-3,20-dione
Cysteamine 2-Aminoethanethiol; CYSTEAMINE; 2-Aminoethanethiol; Mercaptamine; 60-23-1; Thioethanolamine; Becaptan; Mercamine; Cysteinamine; beta-Mercaptoethylamine; 2-Mercaptoethylamine; Cysteamin; Lambraten; Lambratene; beta-Aminoethanethiol; Cystagon; Riacon; Decarboxycysteine; Mercaptoethylamine; 2-Amino-1-ethanethiol; Ethanethiol, 2-amino-; Cisteamina; 2-Aminoethyl mercaptan; beta-Aminoethylthiol; 2-Mercaptoethanamine; Mercaptamin; (2-Mercaptoethyl)amine; MEA (mercaptan); Ethanethiolamine; 2-AMINO-ETHANETHIOL; beta-MEA; Aminoethyl mercaptan; Mercaptamina; Mercaptaminum; Cysteamide; Mecramine; Mercamin; Merkamin; Cisteamina [Italian]; Cystaran; Mercaptaminum [INN-Latin]; Mercaptamina [INN-Spanish]; 1-Amino-2-mercaptoethylamine; 2-aminoethane-1-thiol; Cysteamine [USAN:BAN]; L-1573; Cysteamine (USAN); WR 347; C2H7NS; UNII-5UX2SD1KE2; NSC 647528; Cysteamine [USAN]; Mercaptamine (INN); CCRIS 3083; HSDB 7353; .beta.-Mercaptoethylamine; EINECS 200-463-0; L 1573; 5UX2SD1KE2; CHEBI:17141; UFULAYFCSOUIOV-UHFFFAOYSA-N; Mercaptamine [INN]; NSC647528; NSC-647528; NCGC00015691-03; 2-Aminoethanethiol, 95%; Cysteamine bitartate; Cystagone; b-Aminoethylthiol; 2-aminoethanethio; b-Aminoethanethiol; mercapto ethylamine; b-Mercaptoethylamine; DHL; NEH; 2-amino-ethyl thiol; CASH; .beta.-MEA; Cysteamine, ~95%; Cysteamine, free base; .beta.-Aminoethylthiol; Spectrum_001755; .beta.-Aminoethanethiol; ACMC-1AVBC; SpecPlus_000654; Lopac-M-6500; DSSTox_CID_2875; bmse000388; CHEMBL602; C-9500; DSSTox_RID_76770; DSSTox_GSID_22875; KBioSS_002235; KSC490G2L; DivK1c_006750; BDBM7968; GTPL7440; 2,3-DESHYDROLANTHIONINE; DTXSID3022875; CTK3J0325; KBio1_001694; KBio2_002235; KBio2_004803; KBio2_007371; KS-00000WES; Cysteamine, >=98.0% (RT); BCP15015; ZINC8034121; EINECS 221-235-7; Tox21_113092; ANW-33452; HY-77591A; s6402; STK315355; AKOS003793343; CCG-204834; CS-2799; DB00847; MCULE-1838427828; NE18622; RTR-031658; SDCCGSBI-0050727.P004; CAS-60-23-1; NCGC00015691-01; NCGC00015691-02; NCGC00015691-04; NCGC00162236-01; NCGC00162236-02; AS-56218; BP-13401; LS-65761; NCI60_002000; SC-18413; SBI-0050727.P003; AB0020070; DB-053562; TR-031658; A0648; FT-0611243; V0810; C01678; D03634; AB00053754_09; AB00053754_10; 106791-EP2292597A1; 106791-EP2295407A1; 106791-EP2298736A1; 213515-EP2371809A1; Q617563; F0001-1576; 2DFDA1F8-7010-4225-8280-AB1C4C43F546; 139720-70-0; 2-Mercaptoethylamine, polymer-bound, 70-90 mesh, extent of labeling: 0.6-1.1 mmol/g loading, 1 % cross-linked with divinylbenzene; Cysteamine
Cytarabine 4-Amino-1-beta-D-arabinofuranosyl-2(1H)pyrimidinone; Cytarabine; U-19,920
Cytidine 4-Amino-1-beta-D-ribofuranosyl-2(1H)-pyrimidinone; cytidine; 65-46-3; Cytosine riboside; 1-beta-D-Ribofuranosylcytosine; 4-Amino-1-beta-D-ribofuranosyl-2(1H)-pyrimidinone; Cytidin; 1beta-Ribofuranosylcytosine; beta-D-Ribofuranoside, cytosine-1; 1-beta-Ribofuranosylcytosine; 4-Amino-1beta-D-ribofuranosyl-2(1H)-pyrimidinone; Zytidin; Cytosine, 1-beta-D-ribofuranosyl-; 1beta-2'-Ribofuranosylcytosine, d-; UNII-5CSZ8459RP; NSC 20258; 1beta-D-Ribofuranosylcytosine; Cyd; CHEBI:17562; 2(1H)-Pyrimidinone, 4-amino-1-beta-D-ribofuranosyl-; EINECS 200-610-9; 2(1H)-Pyrimidinone, 4-amino-1beta-D-ribofuranosyl-; 5CSZ8459RP; cytosine-1beta-D-Ribofuranoside; UHDGCWIWMRVCDJ-XVFCMESISA-N; 4-amino-1-beta-D-ribofuranosylpyrimidin-2(1H)-one; MFCD00006545; Cytidine, 99+%; cytidine-2'-13C; 4-amino-1-[(2R,3R,4S,5R)-3,4-dihydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)oxolan-2-yl]pyrimidin-2-one; 4-amino-1-[(2R,3R,4S,5R)-3,4-dihydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)oxolan-2-yl]-1,2-dihydropyrimidin-2-one; SMR000058243; 1.beta.-Ribofuranosylcytosine; 1.beta.-D-Ribofuranosylcytosine; 1-Beta-d-ribofuranoside cytosine; beta-cytidine; NSC-20258; .beta.-D-Ribofuranoside, cytosine-1; 3h-cytidine; Cytosine, 1-.beta.-D-ribofuranosyl-; Posilent (TN); CTN; beta.-D-Ribo-C; Cytidine, 99%; cytidine, N-15N-; PubChem14146; Cytosine beta-D-riboside; CP-C; 4-Amino-1.beta.-D-ribofuranosyl-2(1H)-pyrimidinone; bmse000190; bmse000969; bmse001020; Epitope ID:141494; 2(1H)-Pyrimidinone, 4-amino-1-.beta.-D-ribofuranosyl-; SCHEMBL7179; beta-D-ribofuranosyl-cytidine; KSC353A2P; MLS000049947; MLS002207040; 1-beta-D-ribosyl- (6CI); CHEMBL95606; CYT007; GTPL4728; CTK2F3027; BIC2010; Cytosine-1-beta-D-ribofuranoside; DTXSID60891552; ZX-AFC000579; Cytidine, >=99.0% (HPLC); HY-B0158; ZINC2583632; ANW-35046; GC1136; KM0929; MMV638723; s2053; SBB003195; AKOS015888568; AM83932; CS-1989; DB02097; MCULE-3044641322; RTR-022281; SRI-2352_17; NCGC00093356-08; NCGC00142483-01; 4-amino-1-[(2R,3R,4S,5R)-3,4-dihydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)tetrahydrofuran-2-yl]pyrimidin-2-one; AS-12696; SC-09086; ST056938; AB0012341; DB-029614; LS-135845; TR-022281; FT-0624315; ST24046405; 65C463; C00475; D07769; 16501-EP2281563A1; 16501-EP2287165A2; 16501-EP2287166A2; 16501-EP2289892A1; 16501-EP2292088A1; 16501-EP2292620A2; 16501-EP2292630A1; 16501-EP2295407A1; 16501-EP2298736A1; 16501-EP2298783A1; 16501-EP2305808A1; 16501-EP2316459A1; 1-(beta-D-ribofuranosyl)-4-aminopyrimidin-2-one; Q422538; J-700167; BRD-K71847383-001-12-5; 4-Amino-1-.beta.-D-ribofuranosyl-2-(1H)-pyrimidinone; F0348-2240; 6D2DC474-DD76-4081-8B34-10605C218F49; 1-(beta-D-Ribofuranosyl)-2-oxo-4-amino-1,2-dihydro-1,3-diazine; Cytidine, BioReagent, suitable for cell culture, powder, >=99%; 111398-92-6; 185553-94-0; 4-amino-1-((2R,3R,4S,5R)-3,4-dihydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)tetrahydrofuran-2-yl)pyrimidin-2(1H)-one; Cytidine; 4-Amino-1beta-D-ribofuranosyl-2(1H)-pyrimidinone
Cytidine 3'-monophosphate Cytidylic acid; 3'-Cytidylic acid; EINECS 201-537-5
Cytochalasin D (3S,3aR,4S,6S,6aR,7E,10S,10R,13E,15R,15aR)-15-(Acetyloxy)-3,3a,4,5,6,6a,9,10,12,15-decahydro-6,12-dihydroxy-4,10,12-trimethyl-5-methylene-3-(phenylmethyl)-1H-cycloundec[d]isoindole-1,11(2H)-dione; Cytochalasin D; 1H-Cycloundec(d)isoindole-1,11(2H)-dione, 3-benzyl-3,3-alpha4,5,6,6-alpha,9,10,12,15-decahydro-6,12,15-trihydroxy-4,10,12-trimethyl-5-methylene-, 15-acetate
D(+)-Glucose D-Glucose; D-Glc; D-Glucopyranose; D-Glucopyranoside; D-Glucose; Glc; Glucopyranose; Glucopyranoside; Glucose; Grape sugar; Glucodin; Meritose; 2280-44-6; Clintose L; CPC hydrate; Roferose ST; Clearsweet 95; Staleydex 95M; D-Glcp; (+)-Glucose; CHEBI:4167; (3R,4S,5S,6R)-6-(hydroxymethyl)oxane-2,3,4,5-tetrol; Glucopyranose, D-; DSSTox_CID_2910; D-glucose (closed ring structure, complete stereochemistry); 2h-pyran-2,3,4,5-tetraol; D-Glucopyranose, anhydrous; glc-ring; Cartose Cerelose; D-glucose-ring; Glucose injection; Glucose 40; Staleydex 130; EINECS 218-914-5; Glc-OH; Meritose 200; nchembio867-comp4; Glucose (JP17); Anhydrous Glucose ,(S); Purified glucose (JP17); Epitope ID:142342; D-(+)-DEXTROSE; DSSTox_RID_76784; DSSTox_RID_82925; DSSTox_GSID_22910; DSSTox_GSID_48729; GTPL4536; CHEMBL1222250; BDBM34103; CTK1A6945; WQZGKKKJIJFFOK-GASJEMHNSA-N; Tox21_113165; Tox21_200145; FCH835462; AKOS025147374; CRB0000812; CAS-50-99-7; NCGC00166293-01; NCGC00257699-01; AB1003407; CAS-58367-01-4; FT-0624357; FT-0668994; G0048; (3R,4S,5S,6R)-6-(hydroxymethyl)tetrahydro-; 2045-EP2270006A1; 2045-EP2270008A1; 2045-EP2270011A1; 2045-EP2270014A1; 2045-EP2272822A1; 2045-EP2272826A1; 2045-EP2275102A1; 2045-EP2275412A1; 2045-EP2277565A2; 2045-EP2277566A2; 2045-EP2277567A1; 2045-EP2277568A2; 2045-EP2277569A2; 2045-EP2277570A2; 2045-EP2277848A1; 2045-EP2277867A2; 2045-EP2280003A2; 2045-EP2284149A1; 2045-EP2284160A1; 2045-EP2287147A2; 2045-EP2287165A2; 2045-EP2287166A2; 2045-EP2289892A1; 2045-EP2292233A2; 2045-EP2292280A1; 2045-EP2292617A1; 2045-EP2292620A2; 2045-EP2292624A1; 2045-EP2295055A2; 2045-EP2295411A1; 2045-EP2295415A1; 2045-EP2295416A2; 2045-EP2295424A1; 2045-EP2295426A1; 2045-EP2295427A1; 2045-EP2295430A2; 2045-EP2295431A2; 2045-EP2295439A1; 2045-EP2298735A1; 2045-EP2298744A2; 2045-EP2298748A2; 2045-EP2298762A2; 2045-EP2298770A1; 2045-EP2298779A1; 2045-EP2301533A1; 2045-EP2301919A1; 2045-EP2301923A1; 2045-EP2301931A1; 2045-EP2301937A1; 2045-EP2305248A1; 2045-EP2305257A1; 2045-EP2305636A1; 2045-EP2305657A2; 2045-EP2305663A1; 2045-EP2305684A1; 2045-EP2305695A2; 2045-EP2305696A2; 2045-EP2305697A2; 2045-EP2305698A2; 2045-EP2308812A2; 2045-EP2308852A1; 2045-EP2311453A1; 2045-EP2311806A2; 2045-EP2311821A1; 2045-EP2311823A1; 2045-EP2311824A1; 2045-EP2311829A1; 2045-EP2311836A1; 2045-EP2311842A2; 2045-EP2314295A1; 2045-EP2314571A2; 2045-EP2314584A1; 2045-EP2377849A2; C00031; D00009; Q37525; 114935-EP2270010A1; 114935-EP2292593A2; 114935-EP2298728A1; Q23905964; N_FULL/O_FULL_1_GS_656; (3R,4S,5S,6R)-6-(Hydroxymethyl)tetrahydro-2H-pyran-2,3,4,5-tetraol; Glucose; 4-01-00-04302 (Beilstein Handbook Reference)
D-Camphor (1R,4R)-1,7,7-Trimethylbicyclo[2.2.1]heptan-2-one; (+)-Camphor; D-CAMPHOR; (R)-Camphor; 464-49-3; (1R)-(+)-Camphor; (1R,4R)-1,7,7-trimethylbicyclo[2.2.1]heptan-2-one; (+)-Bornan-2-one; (R)-(+)-Camphor; (1R,4R)-camphor; DL-Camphor; Camphor(D); D-(+)-Camphor; (+)-2-Bornanone; Camphora; Camphor D-form; Cinnamomum camphora; UNII-N20HL7Q941; Camphor (1R); FEMA No. 2230; d-2-Bornanone; Bicyclo[2.2.1]heptan-2-one, 1,7,7-trimethyl-, (1R,4R)-; Alcanfor; Japanese camphor; CHEBI:15396; Camphor USP; d-2-Camphanone; DSSYKIVIOFKYAU-XCBNKYQSSA-N; N20HL7Q941; (1R)-Camphor; (1R,4R)-4,7,7-trimethylbicyclo[2.2.1]heptan-3-one; NCGC00090681-04; Camphor, (+)-; DSSTox_CID_4721; D(+)-Camphor, 97%; DSSTox_RID_77510; DSSTox_GSID_24721; Camphor oil; (1R,4R)-1,7,7-Trimethylbicyclo(2.2.1)heptan-2-one; Huile de camphre; Camphor, Racemic; 2-Kamfanon; Kampfer [German]; Camphor, D-; Camphor [USP]; EINECS 207-355-2; UN2717; 2-Kamfanon [Czech]; (+-)-Camphor; Caswell No. 155; CAS-464-49-3; AI3-01698; Huile de camphre [French]; HSDB 37; (1R)-1,7,7-Trimethylbicyclo[2.2.1]heptan-2-one; Dextrocamphor; Bicyclo(2.2.1)heptan-2-one, 1,7,7-trimethyl-, (1R,4R)-; Natural camphor; Mulberry roots; EINECS 200-945-0; EINECS 244-350-4; MFCD00064149; MFCD00074738; EPA Pesticide Chemical Code 015602; Zang Qi; BRN 1907611; BRN 3196099; camphor (natural); ( S)-camphor; d-Camphor [JAN]; AI3-18783; Camphor, 96%; Spectrum2_000383; Spectrum3_000322; SCHEMBL16069; BSPBio_001923; Bicyclo(2.2.1)heptan-2-one, 1,7,7-trimethyl-, (1theta)-; SPBio_000565; D-Camphor, >=97%, FG; CHEMBL504760; DTXSID4024721; FEMA NO. 4513; BDBM36263; CTK7H1022; KBio3_001143; D-Camphor, natural, 96%, FG; Pharmakon1600-01500156; ZINC967520; (1R)-(+)-Camphor, 98%; HY-B1173; Tox21_110995; Tox21_202187; Tox21_303052; 5739AF; NSC755918; SBB012351; (+/-)-Camphor, >=95.5%; AKOS016001972; Tox21_110995_1; CS-4779; DB01744; NE11121; NSC-755918; D-Camphor, analytical reference material; NCGC00090681-01; NCGC00090681-02; NCGC00090681-06; NCGC00090681-07; NCGC00090730-03; NCGC00257061-01; NCGC00259736-01; ST069333; (+/-)-Camphor, puriss., 96-101%; SBI-0206668.P002; ST24026081; EC 200-945-0; (+/-)-Camphor, SAJ first grade, >=96.0%; AB00443849_03; 0-07-00-00135 (Beilstein Handbook Reference); 4-07-00-00213 (Beilstein Handbook Reference); Camphor, synthetic [UN2717] [Flammable solid]; (+/-)-Camphor, purum, synthetic, >=95.0% (GC); Q27089415; Camphor (dl), primary pharmaceutical reference standard; Z1741978849; UNII-5TJD82A1ET component DSSYKIVIOFKYAU-XCBNKYQSSA-N; Camphor, United States Pharmacopeia (USP) Reference Standard; (+)-Camphor, purum, natural, >=97.0% (sum of enantiomers, GC); Camphor (racemic), European Pharmacopoeia (EP) Reference Standard; D-Camphor, Pharmaceutical Secondary Standard; Certified Reference Material; (+/-)-Camphor, meets analytical specification of Ph.??Eur., BP, racemic, >=95% (GC); Bicyclo(2.2.1)heptan-2-one, 1,7,7-trimethyl-, (1theta)-; AI3-01698
D-Pinitol (+)-Pinitol; D-Pinitol; 10284-63-6; 3-O-Methyl-D-chiro-inositol; Pinitol; Methylinositol; D-(+)-Pinitol; Inzitol; (+)-Pinitol; 1-D-4-O-METHYL-MYO-INOSITOL; Pinit; D-ononitol; (+)-Ononitol; Ononitol; Sennitol; 1D-4-O-Methyl-myo-inositol; 1D-3-O-methyl-chiro-inositol; D-chiro-Inositol, 3-O-methyl-; 4-O-Methyl-myo-inositol; UNII-TF9HZN9T0M; UNII-A998ME07KR; 5D-5-O-Methyl-chiro-inositol; 6090-97-7; NIC5-15; TF9HZN9T0M; Matezit; Sennit; A998ME07KR; CHEMBL493737; CHEBI:28548; DSCFFEYYQKSRSV-KLJZZCKASA-N; MFCD00216659; NSC 43336; Pinitol, (+)-; (1R,2S,3S,4S,5S,6S)-6-Methoxycyclohexane-1,2,3,4,5-pentaol; 484-68-4; Matezitol; (1R,2S,3R,4S,5S,6S)-6-methoxycyclohexane-1,2,3,4,5-pentol; (1R,2S,3S,4S,5S,6S)-6-methoxycyclohexane-1,2,3,4,5-pentol; Pinitol soy; Ononitol, (+)-; (1r,2s,4s,5s)-6-methoxycyclohexane-1,2,3,4,5-pentol; 1L-3-O-methyl-chiro-inositol; Cathrtomannitol; Cathartomannitol; D-Myo-inositol, 4-O-methyl-; NSC-128700; NSC 128700; D-chiro-Inositol, 3-O-methyl- (9CI); D-Pinitol, 95%; PubChem18248; chiro-Inositol,3-O-methyl-; 3-O-Methyl-L-chiro-inositol; 4-O-Methyl-D-chiro-inositol; SCHEMBL464884; D-Pinitol, analytical standard; NDI 18; SCHEMBL12858655; SCHEMBL15269258; CHEBI:18266; CTK4J0830; (1S,2S,4S,5R)-6-methoxycyclohexane-1,2,3,4,5-pentol; DTXSID50883108; DSCFFEYYQKSRSV-FEPQRWDDSA-N; HY-N0655; ZINC2561263; BDBM50275563; s3870; AKOS006287560; AKOS015918369; AKOS025310137; ZINC100016113; ZINC100055842; ZINC100491932; ZINC108475601; BCP9000576; DB12969; FCH3969994; SMP2_000168; 484-69-5; AB1006728; Inositol, 3-O-methyl-, D-chiro- (8CI); TR-000672; CS-0009678; FT-0080758; FT-0694792; N2307; 84P636; C03844; C06352; M-2348; C-36463; Q7094499; W-203273; (1R,2S,4S,5S)-6-methoxycyclohexane-1,2,3,4,5-pentaol; B326207B-40FC-4D9A-B39B-15AE90545A34; UNII-N55OCE7X7M component DSCFFEYYQKSRSV-KLJZZCKASA-N; (1R,2S,3R,4S,5S,6S)-6-methoxycyclohexane-1,2,3,4,5-pentaol; Methylinositol; Matezit
D-Proline D-proline; 344-25-2; (R)-pyrrolidine-2-carboxylic acid; H-D-Pro-OH; (2R)-pyrrolidine-2-carboxylic acid; D-(+)-Proline; D-Prolin; R-Proline; D-Pro; proline; H-Pros-OH; H-DPro-OH; CHEBI:16313; (R)-2-CARBOXYPYRROLIDINE; (R)-PROLINE; EINECS 206-452-7; MFCD00064317; d-2-pyrrolidinecarboxylic acid; D-Pyrrolidine-2-carboxylic acid; SBB006712; 7005-20-1; D(+)-Proline, 99+%; (2R)-pyrrolidine-2-carboxylate; (2R)-2-Carboxypyrrolidine; (D)-proline; d(+)-proline; PubChem10979; D-D-Pro-OH; R)-2-Carboxypyrrolidine; NCIStruc1_001918; NCIStruc2_000132; SCHEMBL65555; KSC491O5P; CHEMBL80257; (R)-pyrrolidine-2-carboxylate; GTPL4676; CTK3J1757; DTXSID70883367; ONIBWKKTOPOVIA-SCSAIBSYSA-N; ZINC895071; pyrrolidine-2-(R)-carboxylic acid; ACT05623; KS-000000PS; NCI97923; ANW-27871; BDBM50357224; CCG-37784; s6016; AKOS015923206; D-Proline, ReagentPlus(R), >=99%; AB02582; CS-W020557; DB02853; MCULE-7748032436; RTR-036551; NCGC00163339-01; NCGC00163339-02; AC-24083; BR-46775; HY-75087; SC-09805; TS-01590; AB0006223; AB1004219; D-Proline, Vetec(TM) reagent grade, 98%; ST2408207; TR-036551; A7284; A7289; AM20090537; FT-0605174; P0994; C00763; M-6418; P-7200; 27676-EP2298767A1; 27676-EP2314587A1; 65147-EP2272510A1; 65147-EP2284149A1; 65147-EP2295439A1; 65147-EP2305636A1; 65147-EP2305687A1; 65147-EP2308812A2; 344P252; J-300218; Q20035962; F1905-6974; Z1259341129; UNII-DCS9E77JPQ component ONIBWKKTOPOVIA-SCSAIBSYSA-N; D2735F99-0D23-48C4-B266-5C7A7DA319A4; EINECS 206-452-7
Dactinomycin 1H-Pyrrolo[2,1-i][1,4,7,10,13]oxatetraazacyclohexadecine, cyclic peptide deriv.; Dactinomycin; X 97
Danazol (17alpha)Pregna-2,4-dien-20-yno[2,3-d]isoxazol-17-ol; Danazol; CCRIS 6747
Danofloxacin 1-Cyclopropyl-6-fluoro-1,4-dihydro-7-[(1S,4S)-5-methyl-2,5-diazabicyclo[2.2.1]hept-2-yl]-4-oxo-3-quinolinecarboxylic acid; Danofloxacin; Danofloxacin
Danthron 1,8-Dihydroxy-9,10-anthracenedione; danthron; 1,8-Dihydroxyanthraquinone; 117-10-2; Chrysazin; Dantron; Antrapurol; Laxanthreen; Diaquone; Istizin; Laxanorm; Laxipurin; Zwitsalax; Dionone; Dorbane; Altan; 1,8-Dihydroxyanthracene-9,10-dione; Danivac; Duolax; Laxipur; Modane; Prugol; Roydan; 1,8-Dihydroxy-9,10-anthraquinone; 1,8-Dihydroxyanthrachinon; Usaf nd-59; Dioxyanthrachinonum; 9,10-Anthracenedione, 1,8-dihydroxy-; danthrone; Chrysazine; Dantrone; Dorbanex; Pastomin; Bancon; Istan; Neokutin S; Scatron D; 1,8-Dihydroxyanthra-9,10-quinone; 1,8-Dihydroxy-9,10-anthracenedione; Criasazin; Dantrona; Dantronum; LTAN; Dantrone [INN-French]; Dantronum [INN-Latin]; Dantrona [INN-Spanish]; 1,4,5,8-Tetroxyantraquinone; Laxapur; Anthraquinone, 1,8-dihydroxy-; 1,8-Dihydroanthraquinone; UNII-Z4XE6IBF3V; 1,8-Dihydroxyanthrachinon [Czech]; 1,8-dihydroxy-anthraquinone; NSC 38626; NSC 646568; CCRIS 3529; 1,8-dioxyanthraquinone; NSC7210; EINECS 204-173-5; MFCD00001211; Z4XE6IBF3V; CHEMBL53418; AI3-38117; CHEBI:3682; QBPFLULOKWLNNW-UHFFFAOYSA-N; component of Doxan; component of Modane; 1,8-dihydroxy-9,10-dihydroanthracene-9,10-dione; Dantron (INN); Dantron [INN]; component of Doxidan; NSC646568; component of Dorbantyl; 1,10-Anthracenedione, 8,9-dihydroxy-; NCGC00091367-01; NCGC00091367-05; AK208660; 9, 1,8-dihydroxy-; DSSTox_CID_328; Anthraquinone,8-dihydroxy-; DSSTox_RID_75516; DSSTox_GSID_20328; W-108572; 1,8-Dihydroxyanthraquinone, 95%; WLN: L C666 BV IVJ DQ NQ; Danthron [BAN]; Danthron [USP]; 140861-59-2; CAS-117-10-2; dianthon; Istizine; danthro-lax; HSDB 7764; 3nsq; Danthron, BAN; Dantron, INN; Dantron (Chrysazin; Chrysazine; Danthron; ACMC-20mzuc; dihydroxyanthraquino ne; Dorbanex (Salt/Mix); Dorbantyl (Salt/Mix); Spectrum_001750; dihyanthraquin_P41_LT; Spectrum2_000603; Spectrum3_000650; Spectrum4_001682; Spectrum5_000324; dihyanthraquin_P21/n_LT; NCIMech_000114; dihyanthraquin_P41212_RT; 1,8 Dihydroxy Anthraquinone; SCHEMBL83688; Anthraquinone-related compound; BSPBio_002259; KBioGR_001944; KBioSS_002230; SPECTRUM211468; KSC490O1T; MLS000069608; Pilules Vinchy N.F. (TN); ARONIS23892; DivK1c_000284; SPBio_000506; MEGxp0_001693; DTXSID9020328; ACon1_000135; BDBM11316; CTK0F1106; CTK3J0719; HMS500O06; KBio1_000284; KBio2_002230; KBio2_004798; KBio2_007366; KBio3_001479; BBC/171; 1,8-Dihydroxyanthraquinone ,(S); dihyanthraquin_P41_LT-Polymorph5; dihyanthraquin_P41_RT-Polymorph1; NINDS_000284; 1,8-Dihydroxyanthraquinone, 96%; HMS2091A09; HMS3715F08; Pharmakon1600-00211468; 8,9-dihydroxy-1,10-anthraquinone; BCP31079; HY-B0923; NSC-7210; NSC38626; ZINC3860369; ZX-AS004388; ZX-AT013456; Tox21_111122; Tox21_200986; ANW-17004; BBL013161; CCG-35470; LS-587; NSC-38626; NSC755828; s4561; SBB057973; STK238373; AKOS001583216; Tox21_111122_1; 1,8-Dihydroxyanthra-9,10-quinone #; CS-4392; DB04816; HS-1003; MCULE-5800615690; NSC-646568; NSC-755828; OR61434; RTR-003068; IDI1_000284; KS-00000W95; NCGC00091367-02; NCGC00091367-03; NCGC00091367-04; NCGC00091367-06; NCGC00091367-07; NCGC00258539-01; 1,8-bis(oxidanyl)anthracene-9,10-dione; NCI60_041443; R229; SMR000059018; SY011288; SBI-0051330.P003; 1,8-Dihydroxy-9,10-anthracenedione, 9CI; AB1006759; TR-003068; D0563; EU-0099935; FT-0624445; ST50330603; C10312; D07107; 1,8-Dihydroxyanthracene-9,10-dione (Danthron); AB00051961_09; Danthron (1,8-Dihydroxyanthracene-9,10-dione); A803710; SR-01000721864; Q5221244; SR-01000721864-2; BRD-K10065684-001-02-5; BRD-K10065684-001-03-3; BRD-K10065684-001-06-6; 1,8-Dihydroxyanthraquinone, Vetec(TM) reagent grade, 96%; Dantron; Chrysazin; 1,8-Dihydroxyanthraquinone; 1,4,5,8-tetroxyantraquinone; InChI=1/C14H8O4/c15-9-5-1-3-7-11(9)14(18)12-8(13(7)17)4-2-6-10(12)16/h1-6,15-16; Danthron; AI3-38117
Dapsone 4,4'-Sulfonylbisbenzenamine; dapsone; 80-08-0; Diaphenylsulfone; 4,4'-Sulfonyldianiline; 4-Aminophenyl sulfone; 4,4'-Diaminodiphenyl sulfone; Dapson; Diaphenylsulfon; Sulfona; 4,4'-Diaminodiphenylsulfone; DADPS; Avlosulfone; Diphenasone; Sulfadione; Sulphadione; Disulone; Udolac; p-Aminophenyl sulfone; Bis(4-aminophenyl) sulfone; Avlosulfon; Croysulfone; Dapsonum; Dumitone; Novophone; Diphone; Eporal; Diaphenylsulphon; Diaphenylsulphone; Metabolite C; Sumicure S; Bis(p-aminophenyl) sulfone; Sulphonyldianiline; p,p-Sulphonylbisbenzamine; Sulfona-MAE; Avlosulphone; Croysulphone; Dubronax; 4,4'-Dapsone; Aczone; Diaminodiphenyl sulfone; Tarimyl; p,p-Sulphonylbisbenzenamine; Sulfone ucb; Sulfonyldianiline; 4,4'-Sulfonylbisaniline; p,p'-Diaminodiphenyl sulfone; Dapsona; Benzenamine, 4,4'-sulfonylbis-; Diaminodiphenylsulfone; Bis(4-aminophenyl)sulfone; Di(p-aminophenyl) sulfone; p,p-Sulphonyldianiline; 4,4'-Sulfonylbisbenzamine; Di(4-aminophenyl) sulfone; p,p'-sulfonyldianiline; 4,4'-Sulfonylbisbenzenamine; p,p-Sulfonylbisbenzamine; 4-(4-aminophenyl)sulfonylaniline; Diaminodifenilsulfona; DDS, pharmaceutical; Di(p-aminophenyl)sulphone; Sulfanona-mae; p,p-Sulfonylbisbenzenamine; Araldite HT 976; Bis(p-aminophenyl)sulphone; Di(4-aminophenyl)sulphone; NSC-6091; Sulfon-mere; Bis(4-aminophenyl)sulphone; p,p-Diaminodiphenyl sulphone; N,N'-Diphenyl sulfondiamide; 1,1'-Sulfonylbis(4-aminobenzene); 4,4'-Sulphonyldianiline; Di(4-aminophenyl)sulfone; Hardener HT 976; 4,4'-Sulphonylbisbenzamine; DDS (pharmaceutical); 4,4'-Sulphonylbisbenzenamine; Dapsonum [INN-Latin]; Dapsona [INN-Spanish]; 4,4'-Diaminodiphenyl sulphone; WR 448; 4,4-Diaminodifenylsulfon; Diamino-4,4'-diphenyl sulfone; DDS; Diamino-4,4'-diphenyl sulphone; NSC 6091D; DSS (VAN); NCI-C01718; 1,1'-Sulfonylbis[4-aminobenzene]; 1,1'-Sulphonylbis(4-aminobenzene); Aniline, 4,4'-sulfonyldi-; 4,4'-Diaminodiphenyl suphone; HT 976; Diaminodifenilsulfona [Spanish]; 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulphone; F 1358; 4,4-Diaminodifenylsulfon [Czech]; 4,4'-Sulfonyldianiline (Dapsone); 1358F; 4-[(4-aminobenzene)sulfonyl]aniline; HY 976; 4,4'-Sulfonylbisbenzeneamine; CCRIS 192; HSDB 5073; 4,4'-Sulfonyldianilin; UNII-8W5C518302; NSC 6091; Sulfone, diphenyl, 4,4'-diamino-; EINECS 201-248-4; MFCD00007887; BRN 0788055; CHEMBL1043; 4-Aminophenyl sulfone, 97%; AI3-08087; MLS000069409; CHEBI:4325; DTXSID4020371; NSC6091; MQJKPEGWNLWLTK-UHFFFAOYSA-N; 4,4'-DDS; 4-[(4-Aminophenyl)sulfonyl]phenylamine; 4-(4-amino-benzenesulfonyl)-phenylamine; NCGC00016322-08; SMR000059064; Sulphon-mere; DSSTox_CID_371; 8W5C518302; Araldite HT; DSSTox_RID_75547; DSSTox_GSID_20371; ICI; DDS, diaphenylsulfone; Atrisone; Avsulfor; Dubronaz; Protogen; Dapsone [USAN:BAN]; CAS-80-08-0; 4,4'-diaminophenyl sulfone; Dapsone (USP); 4-Aminophenylsulfone; Aczone (TN); 4,4-Sulfonyldianiline; 4-Aminop henyl sulfone; Diaphenylsulfone (JAN); SR-01000002976; D SS; (4-sulfanilylphenyl)amine; AZT + Dapsone cominbation; Servidapson; diaphenylsulfone; Diaphenyl sulfone; Dapsone [USAN:USP:INN:BAN]; Dapsone-d8; 4-(4-aminobenzenesulfonyl)aniline; Dapsone,(S); Prestwick_152; 4-[(4-aminophenyl)sulfonyl]aniline; ALBB-005917; IN-201; W R 448; BIS SULFONE; 4,4''-dapsone; Spectrum_000888; ACMC-209piw; Aniline,4'-sulfonyldi-; Opera_ID_1950; Prestwick0_000035; Prestwick1_000035; Prestwick2_000035; Prestwick3_000035; Spectrum2_001133; Spectrum3_000375; Spectrum4_000310; Spectrum5_000825; WLN: ZR DSWR DZ; 4,4''-sulfonyldianiline; 4,4''-sulfonylbisaniline; 4'-Diaminodiphenyl sulfone; 4,4-Diaminodiphenylsulfone; EC 201-248-4; 4,4'-Sulfonyldiphenylamine; Benzenamine,4'-sulfonylbis-; 4,4-Diaminodiphenyl Sulfone; Oprea1_143052; SCHEMBL21428; BSPBio_000129; BSPBio_002129; CBDivE_013582; Dianiline, 4,4'-sulfonyl-; KBioGR_000900; KBioSS_001368; KSC647I3R; MLS001055349; MLS001076146; 4,4''-Sulfonylbisbenzenamine; 4,4'-Sulfonylbis-benzenamine; 4,4'-Sulfonylbis[benzamine]; BIDD:GT0770; DivK1c_000573; p,p''-diaminodiphenyl sulfone; SPECTRUM1500222; SPBio_001025; SPBio_002050; 4,4''-diaminodiphenyl sulfone; 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulfone; BPBio1_000143; ZINC6310; CTK5E7438; HMS501M15; KBio1_000573; KBio2_001368; KBio2_003936; KBio2_006504; KBio3_001349; NSC-6091D; 4-(4-aminophenylsulfonyl)aniline; J04BA02; NINDS_000573; HMS1568G11; HMS1920C14; HMS2091K04; HMS2095G11; HMS2231G09; HMS3259C13; HMS3369B11; HMS3712G11; Pharmakon1600-01500222; ACT07431; EBD28910; HY-B0688; KS-00000JP1; 1,1''-sulfonylbis(4-aminobenzene); Tox21_110371; Tox21_201347; Tox21_300558; 4-(4-aminophenylsulfonyl)benzenamine; ANW-37350; BBL002412; BDBM50029764; CCG-40260; CD0112; NSC756716; s4612; SBB003168; STK387118; AKOS000119322; Tox21_110371_1; CS-2928; DB00250; HT 9664; KS-1450; LS-1790; LS10738; MCULE-7294380437; NC00488; NSC-756716; RTR-025382; IDI1_000573; NCGC00016322-01; NCGC00016322-02; NCGC00016322-03; NCGC00016322-04; NCGC00016322-05; NCGC00016322-06; NCGC00016322-07; NCGC00016322-09; NCGC00016322-10; NCGC00016322-13; NCGC00023946-03; NCGC00023946-04; NCGC00023946-05; NCGC00023946-06; NCGC00254533-01; NCGC00258899-01; AC-10922; AK175100; CPD000059064; SAM002554879; SC-46793; 4-[(4-Aminophenyl)sulfonyl]phenylamine #; SBI-0051331.P003; AB1004833; DB-056406; AB00051962; D0089; Dapsone, VETRANAL(TM), analytical standard; FT-0624447; R1186; ST50308134; 4 inverted exclamation marka-Sulfonyldianiline; C07666; D00592; AB00051962_19; A839828; Q422226; 4 inverted exclamation marka-Diaminodiphenyl sulfone; Q-200435; SR-01000002976-2; SR-01000002976-4; BRD-K62363391-001-05-8; BRD-K62363391-001-15-7; 4 4-Diamino Diphenyl Sulfone 99.5%min Cas:80-08-8; Dapsone, British Pharmacopoeia (BP) Reference Standard; Dapsone, European Pharmacopoeia (EP) Reference Standard; F0266-3067; Dapsone, United States Pharmacopeia (USP) Reference Standard; Dapsone, Pharmaceutical Secondary Standard; Certified Reference Material; 4,4 inverted exclamation marka-Diaminodiphenyl sulfone; 4,4 inverted exclamation marka-Sulfonyldianiline; Bis(4-aminophenyl) sulfone; Dapsone; Dapsone; F 1358
Daunorubicin (8S-cis)-8-Acetyl-10-[(3-amino-2,3,6-trideoxy-alpha-L-lyxo-hexopyranosyl)oxy]-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,8,11-trihydroxy-1-methoxy-5,12-naphthacenedine; Daunorubicin; Acetyladriamycin
Dazomet Tetrahydro-3,5-dimethyl-2H-1,3,5-thiadiazine-2-thione; DAZOMET; 533-74-4; Basamid; 3,5-Dimethyl-1,3,5-thiadiazinane-2-thione; Thiazone; Tiazon; Mylone; DMTT; Carbothialdin; Nefusan; Prezervit; Thiazon; Crag nemacide; Basamid-Puder; Mico-fume; Dimethylformocarbothialdine; Basamid G; Basamid P; Basamide; Crag 974; Mylon; Mylone 85; Fennosan B 100; Stauffer N 521; Basamid-Granular; Crag fungicide 974; Nalcon 243; Crag 85W; Thiadiazin (pesticide); Troysan 142; Dazomet-Powder BASF; UCC 974; 3,5-Dimethyltetrahydro-1,3,5-thiadiazine-2-thione; Basamid - Purder; Mylon [Czech]; Salvo [Czech]; NSC 4737; 2H-1,3,5-Thiadiazine-2-thione, tetrahydro-3,5-dimethyl-; Caswell No. 840; Dazomet [BSI:ISO]; N 521; UNII-S7419CG4W5; 2-Thio-3,5-dimethyltetrahydro-1,3,5-thiadiazine; D 35; 3,5-Dimethyl-2-thionotetrahydro-1,3,5-thiadiazine; HSDB 1642; 3,5-Dimethyltetrahydro-1,3,5-2H-thiadiazine-2-thione; 3,5-Dimethyltetrahydro-2H-1,3,5-thiadiazine-2-thione; Tetrahydro-2H-3,5-dimethyl-1,3,5-thiadiazine-2-thione; Tetrahydro-3,5-dimethyl-2H-1,3,5-thiadiazine-2-thione; EINECS 208-576-7; 3,5-Dimethyl-1,2,3,5-tetrahydro-1,3,5-thiadiazinethione-2; EPA Pesticide Chemical Code 035602; BRN 0116039; 3,5-Dimethyl-1,3,5-(2H)-tetrahydrothiadiazine-2-thione; C5H10N2S2; CHEBI:75212; NSC4737; 3,5-Dimetil-peridro-1,3,5-tiadiazin-2-tione; QAYICIQNSGETAS-UHFFFAOYSA-N; 3,5-Dimethylperhydro-1,3,5-thiadiazin-2-thion; S7419CG4W5; 3,5-Dimetil-peridro-1,3,5-tiadiazin-2-tione [Italian]; 3,5-Dimethylperhydro-1,3,5-thiadiazin-2-thion [Czech, German]; DSSTox_CID_4902; DSSTox_RID_77573; DSSTox_GSID_24902; W-105744; CAS-533-74-4; Dazoberg; Micofume; 3,3,5-thiadiazine; Maybridge1_000020; MixCom1_000020; 3,3,5-tiadiazin-2-tione; Amerstat 233 (Salt/Mix); SCHEMBL21382; 3,3,5-thiadiazin-2-thion; 2-Thio-3,3,5-thiadiazine; 4-27-00-07436 (Beilstein Handbook Reference); MLS000104430; 3,3,5-thiadiazine-2-thione; CHEMBL1407826; DTXSID7024902; CTK8E4304; 3,3,5-2H-thiadiazine-2-thione; HMS2277P17; 3,3,5-2H-thioadiazine-2-thione; CCG-2038; NSC-4737; Tox21_201236; Tox21_300990; FCH831564; LS-196; ZINC19300079; WLN: T6NYS ENTJ A1 BUS E1; AKOS006230484; MCULE-5198790230; VA10673; Tetrahydro-3,3,5-thiadiazine-2-thione; NCGC00080412-01; NCGC00080412-02; NCGC00080412-03; NCGC00080412-04; NCGC00254892-01; NCGC00258788-01; AC-12680; AS-15262; O664; SC-81210; SMR000054365; 3,3,5-2H-tetrahydrothiadiazine-2-thione; AX8009478; Dazomet, PESTANAL(R), analytical standard; DB-052323; Tetrahydro-2H-3,3,5-thiadiazine-2-thione; TR-018881; FT-0603127; MLS000104430-02; Z3743; C18457; 3,2,3,5-tetrahydro-1,3,5-thiadiazinethione-2; 3,5-Dimethyl-1,3,5-thiadiazinane-2-thione #; 533D744; A829551; C-04250; Q424814; SR-01000641863-1; 3,5-Dimethyl-tetrahydro-1,3,5-thiadiazine-2-thione; 2H-1,5-Thiadiazine-2-thione, tetrahydro-3,5-dimethyl-; 3,5-Dimethyl-1,3,5-2H-tetrahydrothiadiazine-2-thione; 3,5-Dimethyltetrahydro-1,3,5-2H-thioadiazine-2-thione; Tetrahydro-3,5-dimethyl-2H-1,3,5-thiodiazin-2-thione; 2H-1,3,5-Thiadiazine-2-thione, tetrahydro-3,5-dimethyl; 3,5-Dimethyl tetrahydro-2-H,1,3,5-thiadiazone-2-thione; tetra-hydro-3,5-dimethyl-2h-1,3,5-thiadiazine-2-thione; Dazomet; D 35
Decanoic acid Capric acid; 4-02-00-01041 (Beilstein Handbook Reference)
Decitabine 4-Amino-1-(2-deoxy-beta-D-erythro-pentofuranosyl)-1,3,5-triazin-2(1H)-one; Decitabine; 5-Aza-2'-deoxycytidine; 2353-33-5; Dacogen; 5-Azadeoxycytidine; 2'-Deoxy-5-azacytidine; AzadC; 5-aza-CdR; Dezocitidine; 5-aza-dC; NSC 127716; 5-aza-2-deoxycytidine; UNII-776B62CQ27; 5A2dc; 4-amino-1-((2R,4S,5R)-4-hydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)tetrahydrofuran-2-yl)-1,3,5-triazin-2(1H)-one; Dac; 4-Amino-1-(2-deoxy-beta-D-erythro-pentofuranosyl)-s-triazin-2(1H)-one; 4-Amino-1-(2-deoxy-beta-D-erythro-pentofuranosyl)-1,3,5-triazin-2(1H)-one; MLS001332587; CHEBI:50131; 4-amino-1-[(2R,4S,5R)-4-hydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)oxolan-2-yl]-1,3,5-triazin-2-one; 776B62CQ27; SMR000857076; 2-Desoxy-5-azacytidine; 4-Amino-1-(2-deoxy-beta-D-ribofuranosyl)-1,3,5-triazin-2(1H)-one; NSC-127716; DSSTox_CID_10432; DSSTox_RID_78849; DSSTox_GSID_30432; Decitabine [USAN:INN:BAN]; Alpha-Decitibine; C8H12N4O4; 5-Aza-2'-deoxycytidine, 98%; 5-AZAdC; EINECS 219-089-4; NSC127716; 2-deoxyazacytidine; 4-amino-1-[(2R,4S,5R)-4-hydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)tetrahydrofuran-2-yl]-1,3,5-triazin-2-one; BRN 0617982; Dacogen (TN); CAS-2353-33-5; 5-Aza-deoxycytidine; NCGC_5ADOC; Decitabine (USAN/INN); 5-Deoxy-2′ -azacytidine; 5-Aza-2′ -Deoxycytidine; CCRIS 8227; 4-amino-1-(2-deoxy-beta-d-erythro-pentofuranosyl)-s-triazin-2(1h)-on; NCGC00166088-01; deoxy-5-azacytidine; Decitabine, Free Base; PubChem19115; JNJ 30979754; JNJ-30979754; MolMap_000063; E-7373; SCHEMBL4006; cc-571; MLS001332588; MLS006010136; BIFK0051; cid_451668; EOS114; GTPL6805; CHEMBL1201129; DTXSID7030432; s-Triazin-2(1H)-one, 4-amino-1-(2-deoxy-beta-D-erythro-pentofuranosyl)-; BDBM96274; CTK1A2018; EX-A961; SYN3036; 1,3,5-Triazin-2(1H)-one, 4-amino-1-(2-deoxy-beta-D-erythro-pentofuranosyl)-; XAUDJQYHKZQPEU-KVQBGUIXSA-N; HMS2235O03; HMS3413L07; HMS3677L07; 22432-95-7; ACT00147; BCP02870; HY-A0004; 5-Aza-2'-deoxycytidine, >=97%; Tox21_112311; ABP001084; ANW-25144; CA-714; MFCD00043011; s1200; ZINC16929327; 4-Amino-1-(2-deoxy-?-D-erythro-pentofuranosyl)-1,3,5-triazin-2(1H)-one; AKOS015895047; Tox21_112311_1; AC-1135; API0002229; BCP9000593; CCG-208143; CS-0372; DB01262; SB18982; Decitabine (NSC127716, 5AZA-CdR); NCGC00166088-02; NCGC00166088-05; AS-17558; CC-26303; SC-19951; BCP0726000271; AB0020011; DB-029060; FT-0082622; SW218076-2; V0702; D03665; J10097; W-5049; AB00918337-07; AB00918337_08; 353A335; C-13049; SR-01000838879; J-700084; Q1181878; SR-01000838879-4; decitabine (2 inverted exclamation marka-deoxy-5-azacytidine).cd; 4-amino-1-(2-deoxy-ss-D-erythro-pentofuranosyl)-1,3,5-triazin-2(1H)-one; 1,3, 5-Triazin-2(1H)-one, 4-amino-1-(2-deoxy--D-erythro-pentofuranosyl)-; 4-amino-1-[(2R,4S,5R)-4-hydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)oxolan-2-yl]-1,2-dihydro-1,3,5-triazin-2-one; Decitabine [USAN:INN:BAN]; 4-Amino-1-(2-deoxy-beta-D-erythro-pentofuranosyl)-s-triazin-2(1H)-one
Deferoxamine N4-[5-[[4-[[5-(Acetylhydroxyamino)pentyl]amino]-1,4-dioxobutyl]hydroxyamino]pentyl]-N1-(5-aminopentyl)-N1-hydroxybutanediamide; Deferoxamine; N'-(5-((4-((5-(Acetylhydroxamino)pentyl)amino)-1,4-dioxobutyl) hydroxyamino)pentyl)-N-(5-aminopentyl)-N-hydroxybutanediamide
Degarelix N-Acetyl-3-(2-naphthalenyl)-D-alanyl-4-chloro-D-phenylalanyl-3-(3-pyridinyl)-D-alanyl-L-seryl-4-[[[(4S)-hexahydro-2,6-dioxo-4-pyrimidinyl]carbonyl]amino]-L-phenylalanyl-4-[(aminocarbonyl)amino]-D-phenylalanyl-L-leucyl-N6-(1-methylethyl)/; Acetyl-2-naphthylalanyl-3-chlorophenylalanyl-1-oxohexadecyl-seryl-4-aminophenylalanyl(hydroorotyl)-4-aminophenylalanyl(carbamoyl)-leucyl-ILys-prolyl-alaninamide; Degarelix
Dehydroacetic acid 3-Acetyl-6-methyl-2H-pyran-2,4(3H)-dione, ion(1-),; 4-17-00-06699 (Beilstein Handbook Reference)
Dehydrocholic acid (5beta)-3,7,12-Trioxocholan-24-oic acid; Dehydrocholic acid; 4-10-00-03478 (Beilstein Handbook Reference)
Delorazepam 7-Chloro-5-(2-Chlorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one; Delorazepam; 2894-67-9; Chlordemethyldiazepam; B1, Benzodiazepine; Cl-DMDZ; Delorazepam [INN]; Clordesmetildiazepam; 2-Chloronordiazepam; 2'-chloronordiazepam; EN [Anticonvulsant]; Ro 5-3027; Delorazepamum [INN-Latin]; 2H-1,4-Benzodiazepin-2-one, 7-chloro-5-(2-chlorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro-; 7-chloro-5-(2-chloro-phenyl)-1,3-dihydro-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one; Clordesmetildiazepam [Spanish]; NSC 169895; RV-12165; UNII-O91W32476G; EINECS 220-771-9; BRN 0754062; CHEMBL268254; O-CHLORODESMETHYLDIAZEPAM; DEA No. 2754; CHIFCDOIPRCHCF-UHFFFAOYSA-N; 7-chloro-5-(2-chlorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one; 1,3-Dihydro-7-chloro-5-(o-chlorophenyl)-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one; Delorazepam (INN); O91W32476G; 2H-1,4-Benzodiazepin-2-one, 7-chloro-5-(o-chlorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro-; 7-Chloro-5-(2-chlorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one; 7-Chloro-5-(o-chlorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one; 2H-1,4-BENZODIAZEPIN-2-ONE, 1,3-DIHYDRO-7-CHLORO-5-(2-CHLOROPHENYL)-; C15H10Cl2N2O; W-107017; chlorodesmethyldiazepam; Delorazepamum; Dadumir (TN); Cambridge id 6782587; Oprea1_689003; 5-24-04-00331 (Beilstein Handbook Reference); SCHEMBL157332; delorazepam--dea schedule iv item; DTXSID70183137; CHEBI:135295; Delorazepam 0.1 mg/ml in Methanol; ZINC1255325; Delorazepam|||Triazolam intermediate; 7-chloro-5-(2-chlorophenyl) 1,3-dihydro-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one; BDBM50026858; NSC169895; STK072416; STL149558; AKOS002312613; AKOS005749640; DB01511; MCULE-8414231364; NSC-169895; WLN: T67 GMV JN IHJ CG KR BG; AC-15739; LS-34176; DB-008912; FT-0659777; D07784; AB00119043-01; 894D679; C-54919; SR-01000243030; 2H-1, 1,3-dihydro-7-chloro-5-(2-chlorophenyl)-; 2H-1, 7-chloro-5-(2-chlorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro-; 2H-1, 7-chloro-5-(o-chlorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro-; Q3705147; SR-01000243030-1; 7-chloro-5-(2-chlorophenyl)-3H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-ol; 7-chloro-5-(2-chlorophenyl)-1H-benzo[e][1,4]diazepin-2(3H)-one; (E)-7-chloro-5-(2-chlorophenyl)-1H-benzo[e][1,4]diazepin-2(3H)-one; 1,3-dihydro-7-chloro-5-(2-chlorophenyl)-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one; 7-chloro-5-(2'-chlorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one; 7-Chloro-5-(2-chloro-phenyl)-1,3-dihydro-benzo[e][1,4]diazepin-2-one; 2H-1,4-Benzodiazepin-2-one, 7-chloro-5-(2-chlorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro- (9CI); 2H-1,4-Benzodiazepin-2-one, 7-chloro-5-(o-chlorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro- (8CI); Delorazepam solution, 100 mug/mL in acetonitrile, ampule of 1 mL, certified reference material; Chlordesmethyldiazepam; 5-24-04-00331 (Beilstein Handbook Reference)
Demeclocycline (4S,4aS,5aS,6S,12aS)-7-Chloro-4-(dimethylamino)-1,4,4a,5,5a,6,11,12a-octahydro-3,6,10,12,12a-pentahydroxy-1,11-dioxo-2-naphthacenecarboxamide; Demeclocycline; Bioterciclin
Demeclocycline hydrochloride (4S,4aS,5aS,6S,12aS)-7-Chloro-4-(dimethylamino)-1,4,4a,5,5a,6,11,12a-octahydro-3,6,10,12,12a-pentahydroxy-1,11-dioxo-2-naphthacenecarboxamide hydrochloride (1:1); Demeclocycline hydrochloride [USP:BAN]; 7-Chloro-6-demethyltetracycline hydrochloride
Deoxycytidine 2'-Deoxycytidine; 2'-deoxycytidine; deoxycytidine; 951-77-9; CYTIDINE, 2'-DEOXY-; dCYD; Cytosine deoxyriboside; Deoxyribose cytidine; 4-Amino-1-((2R,4S,5R)-4-hydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)tetrahydrofuran-2-yl)pyrimidin-2(1H)-one; Desoxycytidin [German]; Cytosine, deoxyribonucleoside; d-cytidine; 207121-53-7; 1beta-2'-Deoxyribofuranosylcytosine, d-; UNII-0W860991D6; 2'-Deoxycytidine monohydrate; EINECS 213-454-1; BRN 0087567; C9H13N3O4; CHEBI:15698; 2 -Deoxycytidine; 1-(2-Deoxy-beta-D-ribofuranosyl)cytosine; 0W860991D6; 2'-Deoxycytidine, 99+%; Desoxycytidine; Desoxycytidin; DC; DCZ; 2'-Deoxy Cytidine-13C,15N2; deoxy-Cytidine; 2' Deoxycytidine; 2-deoxy-Cytidine; Cytidine, 2'-deoxy-,monohydrate (9CI); 2'-deoxy-cytidine; 4-amino-1-[(2R,4S,5R)-4-hydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)tetrahydrofuran-2-yl]pyrimidin-2(1H)-one; AK-54657; PubChem14191; Cytidine, 2'-deoxy-, labeled with tritium; SCHEMBL23178; 4-25-00-03662 (Beilstein Handbook Reference); 2'-dC; CHEMBL66115; CYT008; cytidine, N-15N-2'-deoxy-; CTK4E4926; KS-00000MRL; DTXSID70883620; CKTSBUTUHBMZGZ-SHYZEUOFSA-N; EBD12187; HY-D0184; ANW-40384; BDBM50367094; CD-454; HG1097; KM3331; ZINC18286013; 2'-Deoxycytidine, >=99% (HPLC); AKOS015896791; cytidine-3',4'-13C2-2'-deoxy-; AM83951; DB02594; MCULE-2040549804; RTX-010970; 1-(2-Deoxy-b-D-ribofuranosyl)cytosine; 4-amino-1-[(2R,4S,5R)-4-hydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)oxolan-2-yl]pyrimidin-2-one; 4-amino-1-[(2R,4S,5R)-4-hydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)tetrahydrofuran-2-yl]pyrimidin-2-one; NCGC00142493-01; 56905-41-0; AS-14313; CC-10390; K726; LS-59066; SC-09152; SC-45544; AX8006956; ST2418063; 1-(2-deoxy-.beta.-d-ribofuranosyl)cytosine; CS-0010105; D3583; FT-0689416; Z6030; 1-(2-Deoxy-beta-delta-ribofuranosyl)cytosine; C00881; 84875-EP2270008A1; 84875-EP2292088A1; 84875-EP2292617A1; 84875-EP2295503A1; 84875-EP2305808A1; C-12974; Q422504; 1-(2-deoxy-beta-D-erythro-pentofuranosyl)-Cytosine; J-700038; BRD-K91822704-001-01-9; 1-(2-deoxy-beta-delta-erythro-pentofuranosyl)-Cytosine; 4-Amino-1-(2-deoxy-b-D-erythro-pentofuranosyl)-2(1H)-pyrimidinone; 2(1H)-Pyrimidinone, 4-amino-1-(2-deoxy-beta-D-erythro-pentofuranosyl)-; 4-amino-1-(2-deoxy-.beta.-d-erythro-pentofuranosyl)-2(1h)-pyrimidinone; 4-Amino-1-(2-deoxy-beta-D-erythro-pentofuranosyl)-2(1H)-pyrimidinone; 4-Amino-1-(2-deoxy-beta-delta-erythro-pentofuranosyl)-2(1H)-pyrimidinone; 4-amino-1-[(2R,4S,5R)-4-hydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)oxolan-2-yl]-1,2-dihydropyrimidin-2-one; 111398-89-1; 404839-17-4; Deoxycytidine; 4-25-00-03662 (Beilstein Handbook Reference)
Deoxyglucose 2-Deoxy-D-arabinohexose; 2-deoxyglucose; 154-17-6; Deoxyglucose; 2-Deoxy-D-mannose; 2-Deoxy-D-arabinohexose; 2-DG; 2-Desoxy-D-glucose; arabino-Hexose, 2-deoxy-; UNII-9G2MP84A8W; D-Arabino-hexose, 2-deoxy-; HSDB 5484; D-Glucose, 2-deoxy-; 9G2MP84A8W; (3R,4S,5R)-3,4,5,6-tetrahydroxyhexanal; 2 Deoxyglucose; 2 Deoxy D glucose; 2 Desoxy D glucose; D-arabino-2-desoxyhexose; d-2-glucodesose; AK-44445; D-2dGlc; deoxy-d-glucose, 2-; 2-DEOXYLGLUCOSE; SCHEMBL7670; 4-01-00-04282 (Beilstein Handbook Reference); KSC175S5P; CHEMBL2074932; CTK0H5957; VRYALKFFQXWPIH-PBXRRBTRSA-N; ALBB-022735; KS-00000K8L; ZINC2512351; ANW-21488; CD0012; AKOS015919409; AKOS015924825; DB08831; LS30109; RTC-030040; 2-Deoxy-D-glucose, BioXtra, >=98%; AS-12502; BR-44445; CC-10393; SC-01330; AB0012037; AX8002991; DB-024740; ST2404382; TC-030040; D0051; FT-0601010; 54D176; D-arabino-Hexose, 2-deoxy- (6CI,8CI,9CI); S-1013; 2-Deoxy-D-glucose, >=98% (GC), crystalline; 2-Deoxy-D-glucose, >=99% (GC), crystalline; C-04435; Q3266534; 5CFA0332-FB70-485D-A064-6C4C39E7CBA1; 2-Deoxy-D-glucose, United States Pharmacopeia (USP) Reference Standard; Deoxyglucose; 4-01-00-04282 (Beilstein Handbook Reference)
Deoxyuridine 2'-Deoxyuridine; 2'-DEOXYURIDINE; deoxyuridine; 951-78-0; Uracil deoxyriboside; 2-Deoxyuridine; 1-((2R,4S,5R)-4-Hydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)tetrahydrofuran-2-yl)pyrimidine-2,4(1H,3H)-dione; Uridine, 2'-deoxy-; Deoxyribose uracil; 2'-Desoxyuridine; UNII-W78I7AY22C; CCRIS 2832; dURD; EINECS 213-455-7; NSC 23615; BRN 0024433; 1-(2-Deoxy-beta-D-ribofuranosyl)uracil; W78I7AY22C; 2 -Deoxyuridine; CHEBI:16450; 1-(2-Deoxy-beta-D-erythro-pentofuranoxyl)uracil; MFCD00006527; 2,4(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione, 1-(2-deoxy-beta-D-ribofuranosyl)-; 2,4(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione, 1-(2-deoxy-beta-D-erythro-ribofuranosyl)-; 2'-Deoxyuridine, 99+%; Desoxyuridine; Uracil desoxyuridine; 1-[(4S,2R,5R)-4-hydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)oxolan-2-yl]-1,3-dihydropyrimidine-2, 4-dione; 1-[(2R,4S,5R)-4-hydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)oxolan-2-yl]-1,2,3,4-tetrahydropyrimidine-2,4-dione; DUR; 2; -Deoxyuridine; AK-54658; 1-(2-Deoxy-D-erythro-pentofuranosyl)uracil; PubChem14193; Uridinie, 2'-deoxy-; 2yb0; bmse000320; 1-(2-deoxy-beta-D-erythro-pentofuranosyl)uracil; SCHEMBL28844; KSC491M3N; MLS001066344; CHEMBL353955; uridine, 2-18O-2'-deoxy-; uridine, 3-15N-2'-deoxy-; 2'-Deoxyuridine, >=98.5%; CTK3J1636; DTXSID30883621; uridine, 5'-18O-2'-deoxy-; MXHRCPNRJAMMIM-SHYZEUOFSA-N; HMS2267D16; ZINC155696; uridine-4,5-13C2-2'-deoxy-; HY-D0186; KS-000009EH; ZX-AT007869; ANW-40385; GE3235; OR0326; s5505; ZINC00155696; AKOS015833069; AKOS015896792; uridine, 2,5'-18O2-2'-deoxy-; 1-(2-Deoxy-ss-D-ribofuranosyl)uracil; CCG-247504; CS-W019820; DB02256; MCULE-5570819090; PS-7750; uridine, 3',4'-13C2-2'-deoxy-; NCGC00142492-01; (beta 1-(2-Deoxyribopyranosyl))thymidine; BR-54658; SC-09163; SMR000112296; ST057093; AB0012455; AX8008061; LS-160815; uridine, 1',2',5'-13C3-2'-deoxy-; D0060; 1-(2-Deoxy-delta-erythro-pentofuranosyl)uracil; C00526; M-4322; 85182-EP2295414A1; 85182-EP2305808A1; 951D780; Q419140; J-700048; E73B1553-A13A-4989-B045-A589A8F2B9DC; 1-(2-deoxy-beta-D-ribofuranosyl)-2,4(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione; 1-(2-deoxy-beta-delta-ribofuranosyl)-2,4(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione; 1-(2-deoxy-beta-D-erythro-pentofuranosyl)-2,4(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione; 1-(2-deoxy-beta-delta-erythro-pentofuranosyl)-2,4(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione; 1-((2R,4S,5R)-4-Hydroxy-5-hydroxymethyl-tetrahydro-furan-2-yl)-1-H-pyrimidine-2,4-dione; 1-[(2R,4S,5R)-4-hydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)tetrahydrofuran-2-yl]pyrimidine-2,4-dione; 1-((2R,4S,5R)-4-Hydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)tetrahydro-furan-2-yl)pyrimidine-2,4(1H,3H)-dione; 136353-76-9; 136353-80-5; 136353-84-9; 174880-34-3; 396726-48-0; 404839-15-2; 404839-16-3; Deoxyuridine; 4-24-00-01200 (Beilstein Handbook Reference)